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The broadcasters in tonight's Cardinals/Braves game were discussing this very scenario. So here's the scenario: The bases were loaded, after the Braves intentionally walked Matt Carpenter to get to David Freese. Yes this happened. Freese surprisingly hits it to the short stop where Allen Craig (on second) lets the ball go through his legs. But what if Craig lets the ball hit him and the umpires rule that he did so intentionally, would they award a double play?
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Yes, they can. I don't know the rule number (but Oakland A's is a wizard at that), but the runner who intentionally interferes and the batter can be called out on the play you describe.I'm just here for the baseball.
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Yup. Take a look at rule 7.09 (g) here:
"If, in the judgment of the umpire, a base runner willfully and deliberately interferes with a batted ball or a fielder in the act of fielding a batted ball with the obvious intent to break up a double play, the ball is dead. The umpire shall call the runner out for interference and also call out the batter runner because of the action of his teammate. In no event may bases be run or runs scored because of such action by a runner."Comment
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Wow cool. I wonder if this has ever happened.Originally posted by OaklandA's View PostYup. Take a look at rule 7.09 (g) here:
"If, in the judgment of the umpire, a base runner willfully and deliberately interferes with a batted ball or a fielder in the act of fielding a batted ball with the obvious intent to break up a double play, the ball is dead. The umpire shall call the runner out for interference and also call out the batter runner because of the action of his teammate. In no event may bases be run or runs scored because of such action by a runner."Comment
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